From: Prof. Gomes (profgomes@geocities.com)
Date: Tue Jan 13 1998 - 15:15:57 MST
At 00:15 13/01/98 +0000, you wrote:
...................
>Philosopher Nozick mentions the following argument in one of his
>books (Philosophical Explanations 1981): There are infinitely many
>ways for there to be something, but only one way for there to be
>nothing. Therefore, assuming each way is equally probable, the
>probability that there is something equals 1.
>
>
>________________________________________________
>Nick Bostrom
>n.bostrom@lse.ac.uk
>
> *Visit my transhumanist web site*
> http://www.hedweb.com/nickb
>
I would like to comment the following about Mr. Nozick's affirmation:
First: an infinite set of *discrete* events, can never be equiprobable,
since sum(p)=1. So any individual p=1/n >>> when n=oo...p=0...and
sum(p)=0... (obvious contradiction...)
Second: If we consider (continuous) probability distribuction function
(p.d.f.'s) modelling,
any individual point has correspondent probability zero... non-zero prob's
arises just for intervals... So, Mr. Nozick's, maybe involuntarily, also
affirmed :
The ways for there to be something are not just infinite but also
CONTINUOUS... (or it denies quantum theory...or a quantum universe would be
just a subset of the whole complete universe ??? >>> it is better not
taking philosophical wanders very seriously... :-) )
Last: Since the probability that there is _nothing_ is zero, a question
arises>> nothing: exists or not ??? ( I always laugh a lot with certain
philosophical questions... just based on NOZICK's affirmative, such
question has no sense... )
Gomes.
FMHPV ( from my humble point of view...)
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