From: gts (gts_2000@yahoo.com)
Date: Wed Sep 25 2002 - 21:38:51 MDT
--- Hartmut <hartmut@ccc-hanau.de> wrote:
> gts wrote:
> > I don't believe that is true. If a given number in
> the final unbiased
> > sequence has equal probability of being 1 or 0 (as
> is the case) then
> > each of the two possible outcomes for a given
> trial has probability 1/2.
> > It follows that each of the four possible outcomes
> for two successive
> > trials has probability 1/4.
> Sorry, but that is not correct. You can't say, that
> if 0 and 1 have probability 1/2, the probablity
> distribution also holds for longer subseries.
I beg to differ. The sequence of 1's and 0's in the
unbiased sequence will follow a binomial distribution,
no different from a series of coin-flips.
> Your method would only work, if 0s and 1s got each
> 50% probability,
And that is case for the final unbiased sequence.
-gts
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