From: Richard Steven Hack (richardhack@pcmagic.net)
Date: Fri Mar 08 2002 - 21:28:41 MST
At 07:14 PM 3/8/02 -0800, you wrote:
>This has been explained by the fact that a fraction of the population
>has mutations in one of the receptor genes that HIV requires to infect
>cells (CCR if I recall correctly). So one could be "infected" with
>the virus and have very different clinical outcomes based on your
>genetic background.
> > The point is statistical - apparently 15% of HIV infected persons NEVER
> > get AIDS. (Or at least "never" being much longer than the statistical five
> > year mortality.
>
>This is explained by the genetic diferences cited.
>
>Robert
Ok - I wasn't aware that discovery had been made - as I have said, I don't
really follow the AIDS thing, as it is irrelevant to me. If true, and if
it indeed establishes a direct cause-effect both in terms of the mechanism
and the statistics (i.e., people with the mutation statistically equal -
or at least come close to - the population that do not get AIDS), then that
weakens the argument of the people who use that point to suggest that HIV
does not cause AIDS.
Richard Steven Hack
richardhack@pcmagic.net
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