From: James Rogers (jamesr@best.com)
Date: Sun Jul 29 2001 - 11:53:24 MDT
On 7/28/01 7:33 PM, "Olga Bourlin" <fauxever@sprynet.com> wrote:
>
> After all, the USA has given reparations for Jews, and to the Japanese.
The difference in cases where the US has given reparations and where it
hasn't should be relatively obvious. The US has given reparations where
there are still legitimate plaintiffs bringing suit against the government.
This usually implies that either the victim is still alive, or the immediate
family that lived during the time of the crime is.
-James Rogers
jamesr@best.com
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