From: Zero Powers (zero_powers@hotmail.com)
Date: Tue Nov 14 2000 - 21:51:12 MST
OK, I'll bite. If government needs the "consent" of the governed, just how
is that consent conveyed unless the governed have a voice? And if the
governed *do* have a voice, how is that not democracy again?
-Zero (still confused)
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----- Original Message -----
From: "Samantha Atkins" <satkins@intraspect.com>
To: <extropians@extropy.org>
Sent: Monday, November 13, 2000 6:06 PM
Subject: RE: election
>
> The part where you implied that "of the people..." meant "in other words,
> democracy". That is clearly not what the founders had in mind by that
> phrasing. They meant that government could only derive *just* powers by
the
> consent of the governed as an extension to the inalienable rights of the
> governed. This limitation on government is not simply democracy.
>
> - samantha
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: owner-extropians@extropy.org
> [mailto:owner-extropians@extropy.org]On Behalf Of Zero Powers
> Sent: Sunday, November 12, 2000 9:18 PM
> To: extropians@extropy.org
> Subject: Re: election
>
>
> Did you misread my post? I said it's *not* a perfect democracy. What
part
> of my post are you calling "false?" I'm confused.
>
> -Zero
>
> Learn how your computer can earn you money while you sleep!
> http://www.ProcessTree.com/?sponsor=38158
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