>it follows that the infinity of the integers is equal to half of
>itself. Therefore the whole argument must be wrong.
Of *course* the infinity of integers is equal to half itself. What *else*
could possibly be the case?
There's a century of mathematics dealing with this topic. I'm entranced to
find people starting again from scratch. Next we could have a heated
debate about whether parallel lines meet. :)
Damien Broderick