"I would respond that omega is a _given_, an object of our
immediate pre-rational experience. And to use the tools of symbolic logic
to investigate an _empirically_ existing phenomenon..."
It seems to me that he is at first asserting that the concept of omega
exists a priori. He then goes on to speak of it further as an empirical
phenomenon, certainly in clear contradiction of the first statement. Any
thoughts on this? Could I be correct, or am I missing something in the
text?
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Roderick A. Carder-Russell
Student-Computer Science, Philosophy
Specializing in Man-Machine Symbiosis
Suspension Member-Alcor Foundation
Information Systems Consultant-Technology Syllogistics
www.shore.net/~rodc/home.html www.shore.net/~rodc/hcibci.html
rodc@shore.net
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