From: Michael S. Lorrey (mike@lorrey.com)
Date: Fri Jul 23 1999 - 23:34:18 MDT
hal@finney.org wrote:
>
> Alex Future Bokov, <alexboko@umich.edu>, writes:
> > In a narrow technical sense, he might be correct. Oddly enough, most of
> > the US Fed Gov's influence is derived from Article I, Section 8 of the
> > Constitution, which has a clause that reads:
> >
> > "[Congress has the power] To regulate Commerce with foreign Nations,
> > and among the several States, and with the Indian Tribes"
>
> No, the income tax derives from the 16th amendment to the constitution,
> which says:
>
> The Congress shall have power to lay and collect taxes on incomes,
> from whatever source derived, without apportionment among the several
> States, and without regard to any census or enumeration.
>
> Tax resisters have often looked for technicalities in the actual IRS
> regulations where they define "income" and "dollars" and other terms,
> hoping to show that the wording fails to capture most people's actual
> income today. All such arguments have been and will continue to be
> rejected, and the people involved often go to jail.
However it has been proven that the 16th Amendment was NEVER ratified.
The IRS tax code is not based on the 16th Amendment, and specifically
states in it that participation is entirely voluntary in order to be
legal.
Mike Lorrey
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