From: Damien Broderick (damien@ariel.ucs.unimelb.edu.au)
Date: Mon Nov 17 1997 - 09:31:37 MST
At 08:34 PM 11/16/97 +0000, Wolfkin wrote:
>it follows that the infinity of the integers is equal to half of
>itself. Therefore the whole argument must be wrong.
Of *course* the infinity of integers is equal to half itself. What *else*
could possibly be the case?
There's a century of mathematics dealing with this topic. I'm entranced to
find people starting again from scratch. Next we could have a heated
debate about whether parallel lines meet. :)
Damien Broderick
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