From: QueeneMUSE@aol.com
Date: Mon Jan 06 1997 - 11:27:01 MST
In a message dated 97-01-06 13:01:48 EST, you write:
<< I don't want to seem like I'm defending de Garis's views, but he doesn't
disagree with anything you have said. He says that if women have been
underrepresented historically because the Man has been keeping them down,
then we should have seen an increase in the proportion of female geniuses
in last 30 years. But he claims they still represent around 5%.
-- >>
Does he define genius objectively? ...subjectively? What exactly is the
criteria?
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