From: Technotranscendence (neptune@mars.superlink.net)
Date: Fri Dec 06 2002 - 03:29:57 MST
On Friday, December 06, 2002 4:16 AM gts gts_2000@yahoo.com wrote:
> The question "Why does X exist?" is meaningful only
> when it is conceivable that X might not have existed.
>
> The ultimate question about the cause of the universe
> cannot pass this test for meaning because it is not
> possible to conceive of the universe not existing. To
> have a conception of any kind, one must presuppose a
> universe in which one can conceive.
I agree. This is a problem _with_ modern philosophy -- and this
includes even those who claim they don't have a philosophy.
Happy Holidays!
Dan
http://uweb.superlink.net/neptune/
See my "Comments on Pancritical Rationalism" at:
http://uweb.superlink.net/neptune/PCR.html
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