Re: why "anarcho-capitalism" is an oxymoron

From: Charles Hixson (charleshixsn@earthlink.net)
Date: Sat Oct 26 2002 - 13:01:46 MDT


On Saturday 26 October 2002 10:36, Steve Davies wrote:
> Lee said
>...
> Neither is a subset of the other since they are terms from different
> disciplines. "Oxymoron" is a term from rhetoric and is the name for a
> specific trope i.e. a way of using or combining words to create an effect
> in the mind of the listener (in this case to get their attention and make
> them think). "Contradiction in terms" comes from logic and the theory of
> definitions. In pure form it's "An a not a" where A and Not A are combined
> in a single definition or premiss. To argue that a concept such as
> "anarcho-capitalism" is a CIT is a lazy way out since it depends on
> definitions to work rather than empirical evidence or deduction. It also
> enables you to avoid empirical responses by simply reiterating your
> definitional argument. In this case there is ample empirical evidence that
> property can exist as an institution in the absence of what we would
> normally call a state.
> Steve Davies

Worse. It depends on a shared definition of a term that doesn't seem to have
a well-formed definition. It's always being defined by exemplar (frequently
a lousy one). The times that I have gotten close to getting a definition, it
has always seemed to imply things that we wouldn't really want the definition
of capitalism to imply. (Or of socialism. You can say exactly the same
about it.)



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