From: gts (gts@optexinc.com)
Date: Mon Sep 23 2002 - 14:11:42 MDT
Hartmut wrote:
> On Friday 20 September 2002 10:03, gts wrote:
>> However by
>> reversing the rule on each successive measurement as to whether
>> long-short measurements should equal 1 or 0, the supposed bias is
tilted
>> just as much in favor of 1's as it is to 0's, such that there is no
actual
>> bias in the final recorded sequence.
> but random is not only defined over an equal outcome of 1's
> and 0's. You need also to take into account all sequences like
> 00, 01 and so on (sequences of three bit ...). So if there exist more
> long-short outcomes, then you will, because of the determined changing
> of the rule, get more sequences of 01 or 10 than 00 or 11. But for
each
> of the four sequences should be the probability 1/4.
I don't believe that is true. If a given number in the final unbiased
sequence has equal probability of being 1 or 0 (as is the case) then
each of the two possible outcomes for a given trial has probability 1/2.
It follows that each of the four possible outcomes for two successive
trials has probability 1/4.
-gts
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