From: pchaston (pchaston@supanet.com)
Date: Mon Jul 01 2002 - 16:08:58 MDT
True, but it still doesn't tie up with the archaeological or textual
evidence from the subRoman period. There is no overwhelming evidence for the
'invasion narrative' and 'ethnic cleansing' that they claim as the
historical explanation for their findings.
Moreover, cultural ties indicate that there were migrations from Jutland,
Frisia, the Lower Rhineland and the Frankish territories, - all culturally
distinct in terms of pottery styles, brooches and other indications of
tribal identity.
Now the difficult question is, why does this genetic difference occur which
would appear to be at variance with other evidence from the historical
record?
Making historical claims from scientific surveys should be treated with
caution as the easiest explanation, an invasion, may not be the correct one.
Philip Chaston
-----Original Message-----
From: owner-extropians@extropy.org [mailto:owner-extropians@extropy.org]On
Behalf Of Spudboy100@aol.com
Sent: 01 July 2002 17:42
To: extropians@extropy.org
Subject: The Welsh and The Angles
http://news.bbc.co.uk/hi/english/uk/wales/newsid_2076000/2076470.stm
<<And the upheaval can be traced to this day through genetic differences
between the English and the Welsh. Academics at University College in London
comparing a sample of men from the UK with those from an area of the
Netherlands where the Anglo-Saxons are thought to have originated found the
English subjects had genes that were almost identical. >>
A bit more shocking then normal UK history is presented, if you read the
article.
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