From: CurtAdams@aol.com
Date: Sun Jul 22 2001 - 20:22:17 MDT
In a message dated 7/22/01 1:46:44 PM Pacific Daylight Time,
gonzalia@cs.chalmers.se writes:
> I think the explanation is to be found in the political strength the
> army accumulated during the 50 years that they kept taking over the
> government once and again, every time they didn't like the way
> the democratic governments were acting.
I don't like that explanation; the army ruled a long time in Spain but
quickly became quite well-behaved there.
> In spite of the discredit,
> they managed to leave government in 83 with a big part of that strenght
> intact (the backing up of the local landlords and their oligopolies
> never weakened, as for them all the killings were all right).
Again, I'm not sure what's different between
Argentina and a variety of other Latin countries.
Would you say the difference is that in, say,
Spain or Portugal the landlords and oligopolists
no longer supported the old fascists? If so,
what's different about Argentina? The guerilla
suppression?
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